Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 02.07.2025 11:33
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
He said he loves me, but why is it difficult for him to leave his wife?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Who are the archers in Genesis 49:23?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
How short is too short for a skirt?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?